The June 24, 2004 checkwrite date has changed to June 22, 2004. The electronic cut-off date for this checkwrite will remain June 18, 2004.
EDS, 1-800-688-6696 or 919-851-8888
Providers are instructed to use the following fax number when submitting the Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT) Authorization Agreement for Automatic Deposits form to the EDS Financial Unit: 919-816-3192.
EDS offers EFT as an alternative to paper checks. This service enables Medicaid payments to be automatically deposited in the provider’s bank account. EFT guarantees payment in a timely manner and prevents checks from being lost or stolen.
To initiate the automatic deposit process, providers are required to complete and return an EFT form. To confirm the provider’s account number and bank transit number, a voided check must be attached to the form. A separate EFT form and voided check must be submitted for each provider number. Providers must also submit a new EFT form and voided check if they change banks or bank accounts.
Completed forms may be faxed to the number listed above or mailed to the address listed on the form.
Note: Providers will continue to receive paper checks for two checkwrite periods before automatic deposit begins or resumes to a new bank account. Providers may verify that the EFT process for automatic deposit has been completed by checking the top left corner of the last page of their Remittance and Status Report, which will indicate EFT number rather than check number.
Electronic Funds Transfer Form
EDS, 1-800-688-6696 or 919-851-8888
Seminars on general Medicaid billing guidelines are scheduled for June 2004. Registration information and a list of dates and site locations for the seminars will be published in the May 2004 general Medicaid bulletin.
EDS, 1-800-688-6696 or 919-851-8888
Positron emission tomography (PET) is covered in both an inpatient and outpatient setting. No prior approval is needed. The following codes are covered for billing PET scans:
Physician Claims (CMS-1500)
|
CPT Procedure Code |
Description |
Effective Date |
|---|---|---|
|
78459 |
Myocardial imaging, positron emission tomography (PET) |
January 1, 2004 |
|
78491 |
Myocardial imaging, positron emission tomography (PET), perfusion, single study at rest or stress |
January 1, 2004 |
|
78492 |
Myocardial imaging, positron emission tomography (PET), perfusion: multiple studies at rest and/or stress |
January 1, 2004 |
|
78810 |
Tumor imaging, positron emission tomography (PET), metabolic evaluation |
January 1, 2004 |
|
78608 |
Brain imaging, positron emission tomography (PET), metabolic evaluation |
September 1, 1998 |
|
78609 |
Brain imaging, positron emission tomography (PET), perfusion evaluation |
September 1, 1998 |
For Medicaid billing, providers must enter the CPT code in block 24D and indicate the billing unit as a 1 in block 24G on the CMS-1500 claim form.
Hospital Claims (UB-92)
The following code is effective with date of service February 14, 2004:
RC404 – Other Imaging Services-Positron Emission Tomography
For Medicaid billing, providers must enter the revenue code in form locater 42 and indicate the service unit as a 1 in field locator 46 on the UB-92 claim form.
EDS, 1-800-688-6696 or 919-851-8888
Effective with date of processing May 15, 2004, the Division of Medical Assistance (DMA) will implement the use of anesthesia modifiers. The following guidelines must be used when billing anesthesia services.
Anesthesia Modifiers and their Definitions
QX - CRNA Service: with medical direction
QZ - CRNA Service: without medical direction
QY - medical direction of one CRNA by an anesthesiologist
QK - medical direction of 2, 3 or 4 concurrent anesthesia procedures
AA - anesthesia services performed personally by anesthesiologist
One of the modifiers listed above must be appended to the anesthesia CPT code each time anesthesia is billed. The AA modifier indicates that the entire service was performed personally by the anesthesiologist. Modifier AA indicates that no medical direction was provided to a Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetists (CRNAs) and that the anesthesiologist performed the entire service. When medical direction has been provided, the appropriate anesthesia modifier must be appended to the anesthesia CPT code for the anesthesiologist claim (either QY or QK) and the CRNA claim (QX). If the CRNA performs the service without medical direction, the QZ modifier must be appended to the anesthesia CPT code.
QS - Monitored Anesthesia Care|
When monitored anesthesia care is billed, the QS modifier must be billed
with one of the modifiers listed above to indicate that the service was either
personally performed (AA, QZ) or medically directed (QK, QX or QY).
Medical Direction Criteria
To bill for medical direction, the anesthesiologist must:
1. perform the pre-anesthesia evaluation and exam;2. prescribe the anesthesia;
2. prescribe the anesthesia;
3. participate personally in the induction and emergence of the anesthesia procedure;
4. assure that any part of the anesthesia plan not personally performed by the anesthesiologist is performed by a qualified CRNA;
5. monitor the course of anesthesia administration at frequent intervals;
6. remain physically present (in the operating suite) to provide diagnosis and treatment in an emergency situation; and
7. provide post anesthesia care.
Documentation Requirements for Medical Direction
If a CRNA rendered the service, the service must be billed with the
applicable modifier, either QZ or QX, to distinguish if the service was provided
with medical direction or provided without medical direction. Medical direction
must be documented in the medical record. When all of the criteria for medical
direction listed above are not met, the CRNA services must be billed on the
CMS-1500 claim form with modifier QZ indicating that the CRNA performed services
without medical direction. Should review of medical records fail to document
medical direction, recoupment of paid claims will be initiated and further investigation
of the practice will be pursued by DMA.
A. CRNA performs services without medical direction:
1. CRNA is employed by hospital or facility and no anesthesiologist is present:
The hospital bills the CRNA professional charges on the CMS-1500 claim form using the hospital's professional number in the group area in block 33 and the CRNA’s number as the attending number in block 33. Modifier QZ must be appended to the CPT code indicating CRNA services were performed without medical direction.
The hospital’s facility charges are billed on the UB-92 claim form with a Revenue Code (RC) in the 37X range. Only the facility charges are included in the RC code. CRNA professional charges must not be included in the RC code. The surgeon bills for the surgical charges on the CMS-1500 claim form.
2. CRNA is employed by anesthesiologist:
When the CRNA is employed by an anesthesiologist(s) and renders services without medical direction of an anesthesiologist, the CRNA services are billed on the CMS-1500 claim form using the physician’s group number in block 33 and the CRNA’s number in the attending field. Modifier QZ is appended to the CPT code to indicate that the service was performed without medical direction.
B. CRNA renders services with medical direction provided by anesthesiologist:
1. CRNA is employed by hospital or facility:
The CRNA professional charges are billed on the hospital’s professional claim appending modifier QX to the CPT code, indicating that medical direction was provided. The hospital’s professional number is entered in block 33 and the CRNA’s attending number is entered in the attending area in block 33.
The hospital’s facility charges are billed on the UB-92 claim form with RC in the 37X range. Only the facility charges are included in the RC code. CRNA professional charges must not be included in the RC code.
The anesthesiologist performing medical direction appends either modifier QY or QK to the anesthesia CPT code on the CMS-1500 claim form.
2. CRNA is employed by anesthesiologist:
When the anesthesiologist provides medical direction of a CRNA who is employed by the anesthesiologist, the anesthesiologist bills the medical direction and the CRNA service on separate claims. The medical direction modifier QK or QY is appended to the CPT code on the physician claim. The physician’s group number is placed in block 33 of the CMS-1500 claim form with the physician’s individual number in the attending area of block 33. The medical direction modifier QX is appended to the CPT code on the CMS-1500 claim for the CRNA service. The physician group number is placed in block 33 and the CRNA number is placed in block 33 in the attending area.
Guidelines for Billing Anesthesia Services With or Without Medical Direction
|
Provider Rendering Service |
Billing Provider |
CMS-1500 Claim Form |
UB-92 Claim Form |
|---|---|---|---|
|
Anesthesiologist personally performs entire service |
Anesthesiologist |
AA is appended to the anesthesia CPT code. |
No |
|
CRNA employed by hospital performing without medical direction |
Hospital facility Charge |
No |
Bills RC 37X range |
|
CRNA professional charge |
Hospital professional number and CRNA number in block 33. Append QZ modifier to CPT code |
No |
|
|
Surgeon |
Bills CPT code. |
No |
|
|
CRNA employed by hospital performing with medical direction |
Hospital facility Charge |
No |
Bills RC 37X range |
|
CRNA professional charge |
Hospital professional number and CRNA number in block 33. Append QX to CPT code. |
No |
|
|
Anesthesiologist providing medical direction |
If one CRNA append QY to CPT code. If 2, 3 or 4 CRNAs append QK to CPT code. |
No |
|
|
CRNA employed by anesthesiologist performing with medical direction |
Hospital facility charge |
No |
Bills RC 37X range |
|
CRNA professional charge |
QX is appended to the CPT code. Use anesthesiology group/attending number in block 33. |
No |
|
|
Anesthesiologist providing medical direction |
On separate claim, append QY to the CPT if one CRNA. If 2, 3 or 4 CRNAs, append QK. Bill group/attending number in block 33. |
No |
|
|
CRNA employed by anesthesiologist performing without medical direction |
Hospital facility charge |
No |
Bills RC 37X range |
|
CRNA professional charge |
QZ is appended to the CPT code. Anesthesia group bills group/attending in block 33. |
No |
|
|
Anesthesiologist employing CRNA |
Anesthesiologist services are not billed when CRNA services are performed without medical direction. |
No |
EDS, 1-800-688-6696 or 919-851-8888
Effective January 1, 2004, rates for the 2004 CPT codes were revised based on information from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). These rates were subsequently revised on February 18, 2004 based on additional information released by CMS on January 7, 2004. Systematic adjustments will be made for claims that have processed for dates of service January 1, 2004 through February 18, 2004.
Providers may receive a current fee schedule by completing and submitting a copy of the Fee Schedule Request form.
Providers must bill their usual and customary charges.
EDS, 1-800-688-6696 or 919-851-8888
Health Check seminars for all providers except health departments are scheduled for May 2004. Attendance at these seminars is very important due to changes in Health Check billing requirements. The seminars will emphasize vision and hearing assessments and developmental screening requirements.
A separate teleconference for local health departments sponsored by the Division of Public Health is scheduled for Thursday, May 6, 2004. Health departments should refer to article titled Training for Local Health Departments on Changes in Health Check Requirements and Billing for information on registering for the teleconference. Both the seminars and the teleconference will use the April 2004 Special Bulletin I, Health Check Billing Guide 2004, as the primary handout for the session. Providers must access and print the PDF version of the special bulletin from DMA’s website and bring it to the session.
Preregistration is required. Unregistered providers are welcome to attend the seminars if space is available. Providers may register by completing the Health Check Seminar Registration Form or through Online Registration. Please indicate on the registration form the session you plan to attend. Seminars are scheduled to begin at 10:00 a.m. and end at 1:00 p.m. or earlier. Lunch will not be served. Providers are encouraged to arrive by 9:45 a.m. to complete registration.
EDS, 1-800-688-6696 or 919-851-8888
|
Tuesday, May 4, 2004
|
Wednesday, May 5, 2004 |
Tuesday, May 11, 2004
|
|
Wednesday, May 12, 2004 |
Tuesday, May 18, 2004 |
Thursday, May 20, 2004 |
|
Tuesday, May 25, 2004 |
Wednesday, May 26, 2004 |
|
Jane S. McKimmon Center – Raleigh, North Carolina
Traveling East on I-40
Take exit 295 and turn left onto Gorman Street. Travel approximately one mile.
The McKimmon Center is located on the right at the corner of Gorman Street and
Western Boulevard.
Traveling West on I-40
Take exit 295 and turn right onto Gorman Street. Travel approximately one mile.
The McKimmon Center is located on the right before you reach Western Boulevard.
Coast Line Convention Center – Wilmington, North
Carolina
Take I-40 east to Wilmington. Take the Highway 17 exit. Turn left onto
Market Street. Travel approximately 4 or 5 miles to Water Street. Turn right
onto Water Street. The Coast Line Inn is located one block from the Hilton on
Nutt Street behind the Railroad Museum.
Holiday Inn Bordeaux – Fayetteville, North Carolina
Traveling South on I-95
Take exit 56 to Hwy 301 to Owen Drive. Turn right at the light.
Traveling North on I-95
Take exit 56 to Hwy 301 to Owen Drive. Turn left at the light.
Greenville Hilton – Greenville, North Carolina
Take Highway 64 East to Highway 264 East. Follow 264 East to Greenville.
Once you enter Greenville, turn right on Allen Road. After approximately 2 miles,
Allen Road becomes Greenville Boulevard/Alternate 264. Follow Greenville Boulevard
for 2 ½ miles. The Greenville Hilton is located on the right.
Holiday Inn Conference Center – Salisbury, North
Carolina
Traveling South on I-85
Take exit 75. Turn right onto Jake Alexander Boulevard. Travel approximately
½ mile. The Holiday Inn is located on the right.
Traveling North on I-85
Take exit 75. Turn left onto Jake Alexander Boulevard. Travel approximately
½ mile. The Holiday Inn is located on the right.
Ramada Inn – Burlington, North Carolina
Traveling East on I-85/40
Take exit 143 and turn right onto Alamance Road. Turn left at the first stop
light onto Ramada Road. The Ramada Inn is on the right.
Traveling West on I-85/40
Take exit 143 and turn left onto Alamance Road. Turn left at the first stop
light onto Ramada Road. The Ramada Inn is on the right.
A-B Technical College – Asheville, North Carolina
Directions to the College
Take I-40 to exit 50. Travel north on Hendersonville Road, which becomes Biltmore
Avenue. Continue on Biltmore Avenue toward Memorial Mission Hospital. Turn left
onto Victoria Road.
Campus
Stay on Victoria Road. Turn right between the Holly Building and the Simpson
Building. The Laurel Building/Auditorium is located on the right, behind the
Holly Building.
Park Inn Gateway Conference Center – Hickory, North
Carolina
Take I-40 to exit 123. Follow signs to Highway 321 North. Take the first
exit (Hickory exit) and follow the ramp to the stoplight. Turn right at the
light onto Highway 70. The Gateway Conference Center is on the right.
A training session is scheduled for local health department staff from 9:00 a.m. through 1:00 p.m. on May 6, 2004 via the Public Health Training and Information Network (PHTIN). This session, entitled Health Check - 2004 Update, will cover the changes in clinical requirements and billing for the Health Check Program.
Registration information has been sent to local health departments. If you do not receive this registration information by April 1, 2004, please contact the Public Health Nursing & Professional Development Unit in the Division of Public Health at 919-733-6850. The target audience for this session is both clinical staff who perform the Health Check screenings (since the developmental screening changes will have a major impact on the clinical delivery of the Health Check service) and billing staff.
The April 2004 Special Bulletin I, Health Check Billing Guide 2004, is the primary handout for this session. Attendees must access and print the PDF version of this special bulletin from the Division of Medical Assistance’s website. Copies will not be provided onsite.
Joy Reed, Local Technical Assistance and Training
Division of Public Health, 919-715-4385
Seminars for Personal Care Services (PCS), Personal Care Services-Plus (PCS-Plus), and Private Duty Nursing (PDN) Services are scheduled for June 2004. The seminars will focus on changes to billing as a result of the implementation of the national code sets mandated by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). Registration information and a list of dates and site locations for the seminars will be published in the May 2004 general Medicaid bulletin.
EDS, 1-800-688-6696 or 919-851-8888
Effective with date of service January 1, 2003, the rates for services provided by Local Education Agencies (LEAs) were changed. This table replaces the information published in Appendix B of the December 2002 Special Bulletin VII, HIPAA Code Conversion for Independent Practitioners and Local Education Agencies.
Systematic adjustments will be made for claims that were billed with a provider’s usual and customary rate and who received the FFP cutback.
Note: Reimbursement rates will change as the FFP percentages change.
Refer to the Medical Coverage Policy #8H, Local Education Agencies on DMA’s website for additional information on billing for LEA services.
|
Procedure Code |
Maximum Reimbursement Rate |
Procedure Code |
Maximum Reimbursement Rate |
Procedure Code |
Maximum Reimbursement Rate |
||
|
29075 |
$ 62.96 |
95833 |
$ 41.98 |
92567 |
$ 18.86 |
||
|
29085 |
62.96 |
95834 |
62.96 |
92568 |
18.86 |
||
|
29105 |
62.96 |
96100 |
79.80 |
92569 |
18.86 |
||
|
29125 |
41.98 |
96110 |
79.80 |
92571 |
37.72 |
||
|
29126 |
62.96 |
96111 |
79.80 |
92572 |
37.72 |
||
|
29130 |
27.99 |
96115 |
79.80 |
92576 |
37.72 |
||
|
29131 |
62.96 |
96117 |
79.80 |
92579 |
37.72 |
||
|
29240 |
41.98 |
97001 |
167.90 |
92582 |
37.72 |
||
|
29260 |
41.98 |
97002 |
83.95 |
92583 |
37.72 |
||
|
29280 |
41.98 |
97003 |
167.90 |
92585 |
150.90 |
||
|
29405 |
83.95 |
97004 |
83.95 |
92507 |
75.45 |
||
|
29505 |
104.94 |
97110 |
20.99 |
92510 |
75.45 |
||
|
29515 |
83.95 |
97112 |
20.99 |
92506 |
150.90 |
||
|
29530 |
41.98 |
97116 |
20.99 |
92612 |
94.31 |
||
|
29540 |
41.98 |
97140 |
20.99 |
92610 |
150.90 |
||
|
90801 |
79.80 |
97504 |
20.99 |
92607 |
150.90 |
||
|
90802 |
79.80 |
97520 |
20.99 |
92609 |
75.45 |
||
|
90804 |
39.90 |
97530 |
20.99 |
92608 |
75.45 |
||
|
90806 |
66.50 |
97533 |
20.99 |
92508 |
18.86 |
||
|
90808 |
106.39 |
97535 |
20.99 |
92587 |
18.86 |
||
|
90810 |
39.90 |
97542 |
20.99 |
92588 |
37.72 |
||
|
90812 |
66.50 |
97703 |
20.99 |
92589 |
113.17 |
||
|
90814 |
106.39 |
97750 |
20.99 |
92590 |
94.31 |
||
|
90846 |
79.80 |
92551 |
18.86 |
92591 |
113.17 |
||
|
90853 |
79.80 |
92552 |
18.86 |
92592 |
18.86 |
||
|
92065 |
41.98 |
92553 |
37.72 |
92593 |
37.72 |
||
|
92526 |
56.59 |
92555 |
18.86 |
92594 |
18.86 |
||
|
95831 |
20.99 |
92556 |
37.72 |
92595 |
37.72 |
||
|
95832 |
20.99 |
92557 |
75.45 |
Jackie Holloway and Pam Munson, Financial Operations
DMA, 919-857-4015
Effective with date of service January 1, 2001, the N.C. Medicaid program covers ocular photodynamic therapy (OPT) with verteporfin (Visudyne). Claims that were previously denied for dates of service between January 1, 2001 and March 31, 2004 may be refiled as a new claim. The requirement to request a time limit override for claims billed with CPT codes J3490 or J3395 for dates of service between January 1, 2001 and March 31, 2003 has been waived. Providers are encouraged to file claims electronically.
The Medicaid unit of coverage is one 15 mg vial. The maximum reimbursement rate per unit is $1,381.50.
Refer to Medical Coverage Policy # 1A-13, Ocular Photodynamic Therapy for additional coverage criteria.
EDS, 1-800-688-6696 or 919-851-8888
The policy guidelines for surgery of the lingual frenulum on recipients less than 30 days of age have changed. If the recipient is less than 30 days old and is having problems feeding due to tongue tie, the procedures described by CPT codes 41010 or 41115 can be provided without requesting prior approval. The provider must bill CPT code 41010 or 41115 along with both ICD-9-CM diagnoses codes 750.0 (tongue tie) and 779.3 (feeding problems in the newborn). Prior approval continues to be required for surgery of the lingual frenulum that does not meet the criteria listed above.
Medical Coverage Policy # 1A-16, Surgery of the Lingual Frenulum, has been revised to reflect this change and is now available on the Division of Medical Assistance’s website.
EDS, 1-800-688-6696 or 919-851-8888
The following table lists the FDA approved drugs currently covered by the N.C. Medicaid program when the drugs are provided in a physician’s office for the FDA approved indications. This list replaces previously published lists. Rates are effective with date of service April 1, 2004.
Physicians will continue to bill on the CMS-1500 claim form using the appropriate drug code and indicating the specified number of units administered. Providers must bill their usual and customary charges.
(*) Designates that an invoice must be submitted with the CMS-1500 claim form. An invoice must be submitted with each claim. The paper invoice must indicate the name of the recipient, the recipient’s Medicaid identification number, the name of the medication, the dosage given, the National Drug Code (NDC) number from the vial(s) used, the number of vials used, and the cost per dose. Providers must indicate the number of units given in block 24G on the CMS-1500 claim form. Payment is based in accordance with Medicaid’s State Plan for reimbursement. Providers will be reimbursed the lower of the invoice price or maximum allowable fee on file.
|
Invoice Required |
Procedure Code |
Description |
Maximum Reimbursement Rate |
|---|---|---|---|
|
|
J0130 |
Abciximab 10 mg |
$ 459.02 |
|
|
J1120 |
Acetazolamide Sodium, up to 500 mg (Diamox) |
18.36 |
|
|
J0150 |
Adenosine I.V., 6 mg (Adenocard) |
34.80 |
|
|
J0152 |
Adenosine, 30 mg (Adenoscan) |
66.56 |
|
|
J0170 |
Adrenalin, Epinephrine, up to 1 ml ampule |
2.10 |
|
* |
J3490 |
Agalsidase Beta, 1mg (Fabrazyme) |
4,037.50 |
|
|
P9041 |
Albumin (human), 5%, 50 ml |
13.01 |
|
|
P9047 |
Albumin (human), 25%, 50 ml |
49.30 |
|
|
J0215 |
Alefacept 0.5 mg, injection (Amevive) |
28.19 |
|
|
J0205 |
Alglucerase, per 10 units (Ceredase) |
37.13 |
|
|
J0256 |
Alpha 1 Proteinase Inhibitor Human A, 10 mg (Prolastin) |
2.38 |
|
|
J9015 |
Aldesleukin, per single use vial (Proleukin, IL-2, Interleukin) 22 million I.U. |
657.15 |
|
|
J2997 |
Alteplase recombinant, 1 mg |
32.83 |
|
|
J0207 |
Amifostine 500 mg (Ethyol) |
405.29 |
|
|
S0016 |
Amikacin Sulfate 500 mg (Amikin) |
15.95 |
|
|
S0072 |
Amikacin Sulfate (100 mg) |
13.28 |
|
|
J0280 |
Aminophyllin, up to 250 mg |
0.94 |
|
|
J1320 |
Amitriptyline HCL, up to 20 mg (Elavil, Enovil) |
2.15 |
|
|
J0300 |
Amobarbital, up to 125 mg (Amytal) |
2.38 |
|
|
J0285 |
Amphotericin B, 50 mg (Amphocin, Fungizone IV) |
9.30 |
|
|
J0287 |
Amphotericin B lipid complex, 10 mg |
19.55 |
|
|
J0288 |
Amphotericin B cholesteryl sulfate complex, 10 mg |
13.60 |
|
|
J0289 |
Amphotericin B liposome, 10 mg |
32.03 |
|
|
J0295 |
Ampicillin Sodium/Sulbactam Sodium, per 1.5 gm (Unasyn) |
6.64 |
|
|
J0290 |
Ampicillin, up to 500 mg (Omnipen-N, Totacillin-N) |
1.48 |
|
|
J0350 |
Anistreplase, per 30 units (Eminase) |
2,169.22 |
|
|
S0115 |
Bortezomib 3.5 mg (Velcade) |
930.24 |
|
|
J0945 |
Brompheniramine Maleate, 10mg |
0.85 |
|
|
J0595 |
Butorphanol Tartrate, 1mg (Stadol) |
3.94 |
|
|
J0636 |
Calcitriol, 0.1 mcg (Calcijex) |
1.24 |
|
|
J0610 |
Calcium Gluconate, per 10 ml (Kaleinate) |
0.90 |
|
|
J0620 |
Calcium Glycerophosphate and Calcium Lactate, per 10 ml (Calphosan) |
5.55 |
|
|
J9045 |
Carboplatin, 50 mg (Paraplatin) |
126.83 |
|
|
J9050 |
Carmustine, 100 mg (BiCNU) |
121.84 |
|
|
J0690 |
Cefazolin Sodium, 500 mg (Ancef, Kefzol, Zolicef) |
2.01 |
|
|
J0692 |
Cefepime HCL, 500 mg (Maxiprene) |
7.28 |
|
|
J0698 |
Cefotaxime Sodium, per gm (Claforan) |
8.51 |
|
|
J0694 |
Cefoxitin Sodium, 1 gm (Mefoxin) |
9.56 |
|
|
J0713 |
Ceftazidime per 500 mg (Fortaz, Tazidime) |
6.04 |
|
|
J0715 |
Ceftizoxime Sodium, per 500 mg (Cefizox) |
4.44 |
|
|
J0696 |
Ceftriaxone Sodium, per 250 mg (Rocephin) |
13.35 |
|
|
J0697 |
Cefuroxime Sodium, per 750 mg (Kefurox, Zinacef) |
5.75 |
|
|
J1890 |
Cephalothin Sodium, up to 1 gm (Keflin) |
9.18 |
|
|
J0710 |
Cephapirin Sodium, up to 1 gm (Cefadyl) |
1.26 |
|
|
J0720 |
Chloramphenicol Sodium Succinate, up to 1 gm |
6.46 |
|
|
J1990 |
Chlordiazepoxide HCL, up to 100 mg (Librium) |
22.37 |
|
|
J2400 |
Chlorprocaine HCL 30 ml (Nesacaine, Nesacaine-MPF) |
5.72 |
|
|
J0390 |
Chloroquine HCL, up to 250 mg (Aralen) |
17.61 |
|
|
J1205 |
Chlorothiazide Sodium, 500 mg (Diuril Sodium) |
9.38 |
|
|
J3230 |
Chlorpromazine HCL up to 50 mg (Thorazine) |
3.93 |
|
|
J0725 |
Chorionic Gonadotropin, per 1,000 USP units |
2.39 |
|
|
J0740 |
Cidofovir 375 mg (Vistide) |
754.80 |
|
|
J0743 |
Cilastatin Sodium Imipenem, per 250 mg (Primaxin IM, Primaxin IV) |
14.20 |
|
|
S0023 |
Cimetadine HCL, 300 mg (Tagamet) |
1.27 |
|
|
J0744 |
Ciprofloxacin for IV infusion, 200 mg (Cipro) |
12.25 |
|
|
J9062 |
Cisplatin, 50 mg (Platinol AQ) |
67.79 |
|
|
J9060 |
Cisplatin, powder or solution, per 10 mg (Platinol, Plantinol AQ) |
13.56 |
|
|
J9065 |
Cladribine, per 1 mg (Leustatin) |
45.90 |
|
|
J0735 |
Clonidine Hydrochloride, 1 mg |
49.35 |
|
|
J0745 |
Codeine Phosphate, per 30 mg |
0.41 |
|
|
J0760 |
Colchicine, 1 mg |
6.32 |
|
|
J0770 |
Colistimethate Sodium, up to 150 mg (Coly-Mycin M) |
48.45 |
|
|
J0800 |
Corticotropin, up to 40 units (Acthar, ACTH) |
83.15 |
|
|
J0835 |
Cosyntropin, per 0.25 mg (Cortrosyn) |
75.06 |
|
|
J3420 |
Cyanocobalamin, vitamin B 12, 1000 mcg |
0.15 |
|
|
J9096 |
Cyclophosphamide Lyophilized 1 gm (Cytoxan Lyophilized) |
40.92 |
|
|
J9093 |
Cyclophosphamide Lyophilized, 100 mg (Cytoxan Lyophilized) |
5.21 |
|
|
J9091 |
Cyclophosphamide, 1.0 gm (Cytoxan, Neosar) |
40.92 |
|
|
J9070 |
Cyclophosphamide, 100 mg (Cytoxan, Neosar) |
5.13 |
|
|
J9092 |
Cyclophosphamide, 2.0 gm (Cytoxan, Neosar) |
81.82 |
|
|
J9080 |
Cyclophosphamide, 200 mg (Cytoxan, Neosar) |
9.74 |
|
|
J9090 |
Cyclophosphamide, 500 mg (Cytoxan, Neosar) |
20.45 |
|
|
J9094 |
Cyclophosphamide, Lyophilized, 200 mg (Cytoxan Lyophilized) |
10.41 |
|
|
J9095 |
Cyclophosphamide, Lyophilized, 500 mg (Cytoxan Lyophilized) |
20.45 |
|
|
J9097 |
Cyclophosphamide Lyophilized, 2gm |
83.95 |
|
|
J9100 |
Cytarabine 100 mg (Cytosar-U) |
7.33 |
|
|
J9110 |
Cytarbine, 500 mg (Cytosar-U) |
7.65 |
|
|
J9130 |
Dacarbazine 100 mg (DTIC-Dome) |
10.04 |
|
|
J9140 |
Dacarbazine 200 mg (DTIC-Dome) |
19.47 |
|
|
J7513 |
Daclizumab, 25 mg (Zenapax) |
380.36 |
|
|
J9120 |
Dactinomycin, .5 mg (Cosmegen) |
12.41 |
|
|
J1645 |
Dalteparin, per 2500 I.U. (Fragmin) |
14.04 |
|
|
J0880 |
Darbepoetin Alfa, 5 mcg (Aranesp) |
21.20 |
|
|
J9150 |
Daunorubicin HCL, 10 mg (Cerubidine) |
66.42 |
|
|
J9151 |
Daunorubicin Citrate Liposomal, 10 mg (DaunoXome) |
57.80 |
|
|
J0895 |
Deferoxamine Mesylate, 500 mg (Desferal) |
13.98 |
|
|
J9160 |
Denileukin Diftitox, 300mcg (Ontak) |
1,190.85 |
|
|
J1000 |
Depoestradiol Cypionate, up to 5 mg |
1.70 |
|
|
J1094 |
Dexamethasone Acetate 1 mg |
0.64 |
|
|
J2597 |
Desmopression Acetate per 1 mcg (DDAVP) |
3.09 |
|
|
J1100 |
Dexamethosone Sodium Phosphate, 1 mg (Cortastat, Dalalone) |
0.10 |
|
|
J1190 |
Dexrazoxane HCL, 250 mg (Zinecard) |
209.34 |
|
|
J7110 |
Dextran 75, 500 ml |
12.72 |
|
|
J7042 |
Dextrose 5%/Normal Saline (500 ml = 1 unit) |
8.45 |
|
|
J7070 |
D5W, 1000 cc |
9.78 |
|
|
J7060 |
Dextrose 5%/Water (500 ml = 1 unit) |
8.09 |
|
|
J3360 |
Diazepam, up to 5 mg (Valium, Zetran) |
0.77 |
|
|
J1730 |
Diazoxide, up to 300 mg (Hyperstat IV) |
110.01 |
|
|
J0500 |
Dicyclomine HCL, up to 20 mg (Bentyl, Dilomine, Antispas) |
15.27 |
|
|
J9165 |
Diethylstilbestrol Diphosphate, 250 mg (Stilphostrol) |
12.89 |
|
|
J1160 |
Digoxin, up to 0.5 mg (Lanoxin) |
1.59 |
|
|
J1110 |
Dihydroergotamine Mesylate, up to 1 mg |
6.04 |
|
|
J0470 |
Dimercaprol, per 100 mg |
21.18 |
|
|
J1240 |
Dimenhydrinate, up to 50 mg |
0.34 |
|
|
J1200 |
Diphenhydramine HCL, up to 50 mg (Benadryl) |
1.43 |
|
|
J1245 |
Dipyridamole, per 10 mg (Persantine IV) |
5.10 |
|
|
J1212 |
DMSO, Dimethyl Sulfoxide, 50%, 50 ml |
39.91 |
|
|
J1250 |
Dobutamine HCL, 250 mg (Dobutrex) |
4.24 |
|
|
J9170 |
Docetaxel, 20 mg (Taxotere) |
301.40 |
|
|
J1260 |
Dolasetron Mesylate, 10 mg (Anzemet) |
13.85 |
|
|
J1270 |
Doxercalciferol, 1 mg (Hectorol) |
4.92 |
|
|
J9001 |
Doxorubicin HCL, all lipid formulations, 10 mg, |
352.06 |
|
|
J9000 |
Doxorubicin HCL, 10 mg (Adriamycin PFS, Adriamycin RDF, Rubex) |
8.16 |
|
|
J1810 |
Droperidol and Fentanyl Citrate, up to 2 ml ampule (Innovar) |
8.45 |
|
|
J1790 |
Droperidol, up to 5 mg (Inapsine) |
2.50 |
|
|
J1180 |
Dyphylline, up to 500 mg (Lufyllin, Dilor) |
8.07 |
|
|
J0600 |
Edetate Calcium Disodium up to 1000 mg |
39.46 |
|
|
J1650 |
Enoxaparin Sodium, 10 mg (Lovenox) |
5.46 |
|
|
J9178 |
Epirubicin HCl, 2 mg (Ellence) |
24.73 |
|
|
Q9920 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 20 or less |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9921 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 21 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9922 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 22 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9923 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 23 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9924 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 24 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9925 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 25 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9926 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 26 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9927 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 27 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9928 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 28 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9929 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 29 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9930 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 30 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9931 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 31 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9932 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 32 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9933 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 33 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9934 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 34 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9935 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 35 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9936 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 36 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9937 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 37 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9938 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 38 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9939 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 39 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q9940 |
EPO, per 1000 units, Patient HCT 40 |
11.62 |
|
|
Q0136 |
Epoetin Alpha (for non ESRD use) per 1000 units (Epogen) |
11.62 |
|
|
J1325 |
Epoprostenol 0.5 mg |
16.16 |
|
|
J1330 |
Ergonovine Maleate, up to 0.2 mg |
4.20 |
|
|
J1364 |
Erythromycin Lactobionate, per 500 mg (Erythrocin) |
3.14 |
|
|
J1380 |
Estradiol Valerate, up to 10 mg |
0.48 |
|
|
J1390 |
Estradiol Valerate, up to 20 mg |
1.02 |
|
|
J0970 |
Estradiol Valerate, up to 40 mg (Delestrogen) |
1.44 |
|
|
J1410 |
Estrogen Conjugated, per 25 mg (Premarin Intravenous) |
55.04 |
|
|
J1435 |
Estrone, per 1 mg (Estone Aqueous, Estronol, etc.) |
0.51 |
|
|
J1436 |
Etidronate Disodium, per 300 mg (Didronel) |
68.85 |
|
|
J9181 |
Etoposide, 10 mg (VePesid) |
1.53 |
|
|
J9182 |
Etoposide, 100 mg (VePesid) |
15.30 |
|
|
J3010 |
Fentanyl Citrate, 0.1 mg (2 ml) (Sublimaze) |
0.83 |
|
|
Q0187 |
Factor VIIa (Coagulation Factor, recombinant) per 1.2 mg (Novoseven) |
1,681.50 |
|
|
J7190 |
Factor VIII (anti-hemophilic factor, human) per I.U. |
0.87 |
|
|
J7191 |
Factor VIII (anti-hemophilic factor, porcine) per I.U. |
2.04 |
|
|
J7192 |
Factor VIII (anti-hemophilic factor, recombinant) – per I.U. |
1.29 |
|
|
J7194 |
Factor IX complex, per I.U. |
0.40 |
|
|
J7193 |
Factor IX (Antihemophilic Factor, Purified, non-recombinant) – per I.U. |
1.12 |
|
|
J7195 |
Factor IX (Antihemophilic Factor, recombinant) – per I.U. |
0.95 |
|
|
J1440 |
Filgrastim , 300 mcg/1ml (Neupogen) |
158.50 |
|
|
J1441 |
Filgrastim , 480 mcg/1.6ml (Neupogen) |
267.79 |
|
|
J9200 |
Floxuridine, 500 mg (FUDR) |
122.40 |
|
|
J9185 |
Fludarabine Phosphate, 50 mg (Fludara) |
318.59 |
|
|
J9190 |
Fluorouracil, 500 mg (Adrucil) |
1.85 |
|
|
J2680 |
Fluphenazine Decanoate, up to 25 mg (Prolixin Decanoate) |
8.02 |
|
|
J1455 |
Foscarnet Sodium, per 1000 mg (Foscavir) |
11.70 |
|
|
J9395 |
Fulvestrant, 25 mg (Faslodex) |
78.36 |
|
|
J1940 |
Furosemide, up to 20 mg (Lasix, Furomide M.D.) |
0.88 |
|
|
J1570 |
Ganciclovir Sodium, 500 mg (Cytovene) |
31.53 |
|
|
J7310 |
Ganciclovir, Long-acting Implant, 4.5 mg (Vitrasert) |
4,250.00 |
|
|
J9201 |
Gemcitabine HCl. 200 mg (Gemzar) |
101.90 |
|
|
J1580 |
Gentamicin (Garamycin Sulfate) up to 80 mg (Gentamicin Sulfate, Jenamicin) |
1.70 |
|
|
J1610 |
Glucagon Hydrochloride, per 1 mg |
40.80 |
|
|
J1600 |
Gold Sodium Thiomaleate, up to 50 mg (Myochrysine) |
12.10 |
|
|
J1620 |
Gonadorelin Hydrochloride, per 100 mcg (Factrel) |
180.72 |
|
|
J9202 |
Goserelin Acetate Implant, per 3.6 mg (Zoladex) |
375.99 |
|
|
J1626 |
Granisetron Hydrochloride, 100 mcg (Kytril) |
15.62 |
|
|
J1631 |
Haloperidol Decanoate, per 50 mg (Haldol Decanoate – 50) |
8.16 |
|
|
J1630 |
Haloperidol Lactate, up to 5 mg (Haldol) |
6.11 |
|
|
J1642 |
Heparin Sodium, per 10 units (Heparin Lock Flush) |
0.05 |
|
|
J1644 |
Heparin Sodium, per 1000 units |
0.35 |
|
|
J3470 |
Hyaluronidase, up to 150 units (Wydase) |
18.42 |
|
|
J0360 |
Hydralazine HCL, up to 20 mg (Apresoline) |
14.34 |
|
|
J1700 |
Hydrocortisone Acetate, up to 25 mg |
0.30 |
|
|
J1710 |
Hydrocortisone Sodium Phosphate, up to 50 mg |
4.98 |
|
|
J1720 |
Hydrocortisone Sodium Succinate, up to 100 mg |
1.55 |
|
|
J1170 |
Hydromorphone, up to 4 mg (Dilaudid) |
1.38 |
|
|
J3410 |
Hydroxyzine HCL, up to 25 mg (Vistaril, Vistaject-25, Hyzine-50) |
1.08 |
|
|
J7320 |
Hylan G-F 20, 16 mg, for intra-arterial injection (Synvisc) |
201.24 |
|
|
J1980 |
Hyoscyamine Sulfate, up to 0.25 mg (Levsin) |
7.66 |
|
|
J7130 |
Hypertonic Saline Solution, 50 or 100 mEq, 20 cc vial) |
0.44 |
|
|
J1742 |
Ibutilide Fumarate 1 mg. (Corvert) |
224.89 |
|
|
J9211 |
Idarubicin Hydrochloride, 5 mg (Idamycin) |